[Full Version] Free Updated Lead2pass 300-320 Exam Dumps Download (121-140)
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What is the recommended radius of a cell for a voice-ready wireless network?
A. 6 dBm
B. 7 dBm
C. 19 dBm
D. 5 dBm
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links.
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence.
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence.
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation.
Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. IP address space is difficult to manage.
B. Broadcast and fault domains are increased.
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP.
D. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed.
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback.
Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
E. The TCO is higher because of the cost of director class storage switches.
Which of these is least important when determining how many users a NAS can support?
B. number of plug-ins per scan
C. total number of network devices
D. number of checks in each posture assessment
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. addressing designs need to allow for summarization
B. termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPsec VPN
D. designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not supported
At a certain customer’s site, a NAS is both physically and logically in the traffic path. The NAS identifies clients solely based on their MAC addresses. In which access mode has this NAS been configured to operate?
A. Layer 2 mode
B. Layer 3 Edge mode
C. Layer 3 Central mode
D. Layer 3 In-Band mode
Which path selection protocol is used by Fibre Channel fabrics?
Which of these statements best describes VPLS?
A. Neither broadcast nor multicast traffic is ever flooded in VPLS.
B. Multicast traffic is flooded but broadcast traffic is not flooded in VPLS.
C. VPLS emulates an Ethernet switch, with each EMS being analogous to a VLAN.
D. Because U-PE devices act as IEEE 802.1 devices, the VPLS core must use STP.
E. When the provider experiences an outage, IP re-routing restores PW connectivity and MAC
re-learning is needed.
How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. to provide service internetworking
B. to support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. as a connection identifier to indicate destination
D. as a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking
E. to provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites
Which two of these correctly describe Fibre Channel? (Choose two.)
A. supports multiple protocols
B. works only in a shared or loop environment
C. allows addressing for up to 4 million nodes
D. allows addressing for up to 8 million nodes
E. provides a high speed transport for SCSI payloads
F. may stretch to a distance of up to 100 km before needing extenders
In which NAS operating mode are ACL filtering and bandwidth throttling only provided during posture assessment?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
A customer has seven sites, three of which process a large amount of traffic among them. The customer plans to grow the number of sites in the future. Which is the most appropriate design topology?
A. full mesh
C. partial mesh
D. hub and spoke
Which two statements correctly identify considerations to take into account when deciding on Campus QoS Design elements? (Choose two.)
A. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue.
B. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue.
C. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service.
D. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50 percent of the capacity of the link.
E. At least 33 percent of the link bandwidth should be reserved for default best-effort class.
Which three of these are major scaling, sizing, and performance considerations for an IPsec design? (Choose three.)
A. connection speed
B. number of remote sites
C. features to be supported
D. types of devices at the remote site
E. whether packets are encrypted using 3DES or AES
F. number of routes in the routing table at the remote site
Which two statements correctly describe an IPS device? (Choose two.)
A. It resembles a Layer 2 bridge.
B. Traffic flow through the IPS resembles traffic flow through a Layer 3 router.
C. Inline interfaces which have no IP addresses cannot be detected.
D. Malicious packets that have been detected are allowed to pass through, but all subsequent traffic
E. Traffic arrives on the detection interface, is inspected, and exits via the same interface.
Which option describes the purpose of the auto-cost reference bandwidth 10000 command under the OSPF process?
A. Recognize redundant 10 Megabit links.
B. Differentiate cost on a 10 Gigabit Ethernet trunk link.
C. Change the default bandwidth for a 100 Megabit link.
D. Adjust the link bandwidth for routing protocols.
A network engineer is designing a dual router, dual ISP solution and must prefer one ISP for inbound traffic over the other. Which two BGP attributes can be manipulated to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. AS path
C. local preference
E. origin code
A company uses BGP to connect with the ISP on the enterprise network and wants to improve performance due to the increasing number of iBGP peers. Which two design solutions address the iBGP full mesh requirement? (Choose two.)
A. route reflectors
C. AS path prepending
E. conditional advertising
A network engineer must provide 40mb connections from the data center to the corporate office and two remote offices. What WAN connectivity option will outsource the routing in cooperation with the service provider?
A. Ethernet Private Line
B. Ethernet Multipoint Service
C. MPLS VPN
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