[2017 New] Latest Lead2pass 400-101 Exam Free 400-101 Dumps Download (81-100)
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Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: http://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html
Which option describes a difference between Ansible and Puppet?
A. Ansible is client-server based, and Puppet is not.
B. Ansible requires an agent, and Puppet does not.
C. Ansible is Python based, and Puppet is Ruby based.
D. Ansible autonates repetitive tasks, and Puppet allows you to run plain ssh command.
Which two improvements do SIA-Query and SIA-Reply messages add to EIGRP? (Choose two.)
A. Stuck-in-active conditions are solved faster.
B. They prevent a route from going into the stuck-in-active state.
C. They help in the localization of the real failure in the network.
D. The EIGRP adjacency between two neighbors never goes down.
Which two statements are true about an EPL? (Choose two.)
A. It is a point-to-point Ethernet connection between a pair of NNIs.
B. It allows for service multiplexing.
C. It has a high degree of transparency.
D. The EPL service is also referred to as E-line.
Which statement about NAT64 is true?
A. It uses one-to-one mapping between IPv6 addresses and IPv4 addresses.
B. It requires static address mapping between IPv6 addresses and IPv4 addresses.
C. It can be used to translate an IPv6 network to another IPv6 network.
D. It can be configured for stateless and stateful translation.
Which three elements compose a network entity title? (Choose three.)
A. area ID
B. domain ID
C. system ID
D. NSAP selector
E. MAC address
F. IP address
What technology allows a PE router to exchange VPNv4 routes with other PE routers?
A. MPLS L3VPN
B. MPLS L2VPN
D. Frame Relay to ATM AAL5 Interworking
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 contacts the RADIUS server but is unable to find the user name in the server database, how will R1 respond?
A. It will attempt to contact the TACACS+ server
B. It will prompt the user to enter a new username
C. It will attempt to authenticate the user against the local database
D. It will deny the user access
Which two statements about SNMP are true?(Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3 uses the SHA encryption algonthm to provide authorization.
B. SNMPv2c can provide authentication as well as encryption.
C. SNMPv3 uses the 3DES encryption algonthm to provide data privacy.
D. The SNMP agent is responsible for collecting data from the MIB.
E. The SNMP manager is responsible for collecting data from the MIB.
F. SNMPv2c supports only 32-bit counters.
Refer to the exhibit. Which EEM script can you apply to the device so that logged-in users are recorded in syslog messages?
Which two protocols are used by the management plane?(Choose two.)
What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow?(Choose two.)
A. Canonical Format Identifier
B. Cyclic Redundancy Check
C. Type of service
D. Source MAC address
E. Input logical interface
F. Layer 3 protocol type
IP Packet attributes used by NetFlow:
• IP source address
• IP destination address
• Source port
• Destination port
• Layer 3 protocol type
• Class of Service
• Router or switch interface
Refer to the exhibit. Which additional configuration statement is required on R3 in order to allow multicast traffic sourced from 192.168.13.3 to flow along the shared-tree?
A. ip route 192.168.14.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel 0
B. ip route 10.4.4.4 255.255255.255 Tunnel 0
C. ip mroute 10.4.4.4 255.255.255.255 Tunnel 0
D. ip mroute 192.168.14.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel 0
You are implementing new addressing with EIGRP routing and must use secondary addresses, which are missing from the routing table.
Which action is the most efficient solution to the problem?
A. Disable split-horizon on the interfaces with secondary addresses.
B. Disable split-horizon inside the EIGRP process on the router with the secondary interface addresses.
C. Add additional router interfaces and move the secondary addresses to the new interfaces.
D. Use a different routing protocol and redistribute the routes between EIGRP and the new protocol.
Which two statements about the command distance bgp 90 60 120 are true? (Choose two.)
A. Implementing the command is a Cisco best practice.
B. The external distance it sets is preferred over the internal distance.
C. The internal distance it sets is preferred over the external distance.
D. The local distance it sets may conflict with the EIGRP administrative distance.
E. The internal distance it sets may conflict with the EIGRP administrative distance.
F. The local distance it sets may conflict with the RIP administrative distance.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes how a router with this configuration treats packets if the devices at 172.16.12.5 and 192.168.3.2 are unreachable?
A. It routes the packet based on the packet’s destination using the route table
B. It routers the packet into a loop and drops it when the TTL reaches zero.
C. It drop the packet immediately.
D. It sends an ICMP source quench message.
What is the default behavior for a manual summary route when a component route of the summary disappears?
A. Regardless of the metric if the componnent route, the metric of the summary is unchanged in order to keep stability.
B. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the same summary metric is retained for stability.
C. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the metric of the summary changes to the next-best composite metric.
D. if the component route previously did not have the best composite metric, the summary metric is updated, and updates are sent to peers.
Which feature can you implement to reduce global synchronization?
What are the two variants of NTPv4? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 sends traffic marked with IP precedence 3 to R2’s Loopback 0 address, which class would the traffic match on R2’s Gi1/0 interface?
Which cache aggregation scheme is supported by NetFlow ToS-based router aggregation?
C. protocol port
D. destination prefix
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